Martin Waller in today's Times takes up the point that I raised a few days ago about the pricing disparity between BA and Iberia for the same flight to Barcelona.
He notes that BA's explanation for this disparity -
"BA claims that this is because it has the cost of the flight, while Iberia is merely issued with its own allocation of tickets."
- hardly makes much sense.
He then raises the question as to what will happen to the BA/Iberia flight prices, in the event that BA make a bid.
Will BA drop their prices or will Iberia raise theirs?
Maybe this very valid question should be raised with the Office of Fair Trading?